Give scientific reasons : The human male never passes on the gene for haemophilia to his son.
The gene for haemophilia is present on $X$-chromosome. $A$ male has only one $X$-chromosome which he receives from his mother and $Y$-chromosome from father. The human male passes the $\mathrm{X}$ chromosome to his daughters but not to the male progeny (son).
:Match the columns :
Column $I$ |
Column $II$ |
$(1)$ Albinism | $(p)$ recessive gene represented by HbsHbs. |
$(2)$ Phenyl Ketonuria |
$(q)$ recessive gene represented by cc. |
$(3)$ Sickle cell anaemia |
$(r)$ recessive gene represented by aa. |
$4)$ Alkaptonuria | $(s)$ recessive gene represented by pp |
If a character is always transmitted directly from a father to all his sons and from their sons to all their sons, then which chromosome carries the gene for the character
A normal visioned woman, whose father is colour blind, marries a normal visioned man. What would be probability of her sons and daughters to be colour blind ? Explain with the help of a pedigree chart.
Haemophilia is
One way of detecting sex linked inheritance is